Mixed Companies placement papers III

Siemens Sample Paper

1. Which of following operator can't be overloaded.
a) ==
b) ++
c) ?!
d) <=
2. For the following C program
{printf("Hello World");}
The program prints Hello World without changing main() ,the output should
Hello World
The changes should be
a) IOstream operator<<(iostream os, char*s)
os<<'intialisation'<<(Hello World)<b)
d) none of the above
3. CDPATH shell variable is in(c-shell)
4. The term stickily bit is related to
a) Kernel
b) Undeletable file
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
5. Semaphore variable is different from ordinary variable by
6. For the following C program:
swap(int x,y)
{ int temp;
{int x=2;y=3;
After calling swap, what are the values x & y?
7. Static variable will be visible in
a) Function. in which they are defined
b) Module in which they are defined
c) All the program
d) None
8. Unix system is
a) Multi processing
b) Multi processing, multiuser
c) Multi processing, multiuser, multitasking
d) Multiuser, multitasking

9. X.25 protocol encapsulates the follwing layers
a) Network
b) Datalink
c) Physical
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
10. TCP/IP can work on
a) Ethernet
b) Tokenring
c) (a) & (b)
d) None
11. A node has the IP address and
But it is transmitting data from node1 to node 2only.
The reason may be
a) A node cannot have more than one address
b) class A should have second octet different
c) class B should have second octed different
d) All of the above
12. The OSI layer from bottom to top
13. For an application which exceeds 64k the memory model should be
a) Medium
b) Huge
c) Large
d) None
14. The condition required for dead lock in unix system is
15. Set-user-id is related to (in unix)
16. Bourne shell has
a) History record****other choices not given
17. Which of the following is not true about C++
a) Code removably
b) Encapsulation of data and code
c) Program easy maintenance
d) Program runs faster
18. For the following C program
struct base {int a,b;
int virtual function1();}
struct derv1:base
{int b,c,d;
int virtual function1();}
struct derv2 : base
{int a,e;
base ba;
derv1 d1,d2;
printf("%d %d",d1.a,d1.b)
Output of the program is:
a) a=2;b=3;
b) a=3; b=2;
c) a=5; b=10;
d) none
19. For the above program answer the following q's
base da;
derv1 d1;
derv2 d2;
printf("%d %d %d",da.function1(),d1.function1(),d2.function1());
Output is:
a) 100,200,200;
b) 200,100,200;
c) 200,200,100;
d) None of the above
20. For the following C program
struct {
int x;
int y;
x cannot be accessed by the following
a )1, 2, 3
b) 2 & 3
c) 1 & 2
d) 1, 3, 4

21. Automatic variables are destroyed after fn. ends because
a) Stored in swap
b) Stored in stack and poped out after fn. returns
c) Stored in data area
d) Stored in disk
22. Relation between x-application and x-server (x-win)
23. What is UIL(user interface language) (x-win)
24)Which of the following is right in ms-windows
a) Application has single qvalue system has multiple qvalue
b) Application has multiple qvalue system has single qvalue
c) Application has multipleqvalue system has multiple qvalue
d) None
25. Widget in x-windows is
26. Gadget in x_windows is
27. Variable DESTDIR in make program is accessed as
28. The keystroke mouse entrie are interpreted in ms windows as
a) Interrupt
b) Message
c) Event
d) None of the above
29. Link between program and outside world (ms -win)
a) Device driver and hardware disk
b) Application and device driver
c) Application and hardware device
d) None
30. Ms -windows is
c) bothof the above
d) none of the above

31. Dynamic scoping is

32. After logout the process still runs in the background by giving the command
33. Which process dies out but still waits
a) Exit
b) Wakeup
c) Zombie
d) Sleep
34. In dynamic memory allocation we use
a) Doubly linked list
b) Circularly linked
c) B trees
d) L trees
e) None
35. To find the key of search the data structure is
a) Hash key
b) Trees
c) Linked lists
d) Records
36. Which of the following is true
a) Bridge connects dissimiler LANand protocol insensitive
b) Router connects dissimiler LANand protocol insensitive
c) Gateway connects dissimiler LANand protocol insensitive
d) None of the above

37. Read types of tree traversals.
38. Read about SQL/Databases
39.A DBMS table is given along with simple SQL statements. Find the output.
40. Simple programs on pointers in c
SUN Microsystems : Company Profile

Sample Paper
Profile of the company

 Written Test
We have pretty sketchy information on the exact pattern of the SUN written test. There is a technical section which is pretty tough. Question based on C, UNIX, Computer Networks, Data Structures and Operating Systems can be expected.
Click here to see the sample test.
 Interview
The interview questions were mainly on data structures, computer architecture ( very imp) , operating systems and computer networks.
 Profile
Since its inception in 1982, a singular vision - The Network Is The Computer (tm) - has propelled Sun Microsystems, Inc., to its position as a leading provider of industrial-strength hardware, software and services that power the Internet and allow companies worldwide to dot-com their businesses. With US$ 14.2 billion in annual revenues, Sun can be found in more than 170 countries. America Online acquires Netscape; Sun and AOL to accelerate the growth of e-commerce and develop next-generation Internet devices in a historic three-year alliance.
Sun Microsystems, Inc. is a worldwide provider of products, services and support solutions for building and maintaining network computing environments. The Company sells scalable computer systems, high-speed microprocessors and high performance software for operating network computing equipment and storage products. The Company also provides support, education and professional services. The Company's products are used for many demanding commercial and technical applications in various industries including telecommunications, manufacturing, financial services, education, retail, government, energy and healthcare.
In India, Sun Microsystems has been in the market for over a decade through its business partners and has been present directly for over three years. In this period Sun servers and workstation products have had a tremendous acceptance in the market. IDC rates Sun as the No. 1 vendor in India for the mid-range servers as well as Unix workstations.
The company, which has changed its baseline from `The network is the computer' to `We are the dot in the .com' owes most of its 70 per cent growth over the previous year to the booming dotcom business. It has established its state-of-the-art industrial and allied facility in Bangalore. Sun and its partners constitute a 400-strong team that supports an installed base of more than 15,000 systems. Some of Sun's customers in India include Texas Instruments, Veritas, Lucent Technologies, ICICI, VSNL, Silicon Automation Systems, Reliance Industries, IIT (Delhi, Kanpur and Kharagpur), Motorola, and Oracle.
For more information about this company visit their homesite at http://www.sun.com/
SUN Microsystems Sample Paper

1. For the following program.
struct XXX
{int a;
float b;
char *s;
If optimization :X not used in compiler then unused bits_________________.
Give your assumption_______________.

2. Give the output of the following program
struct XXX
{int a:6;
float b:4;
char s;
size of (structure);

3.Class used for the multiple inheritence in JAVA_________________
(a) anonymous class
(b) inner class
(c) abstreet class
(d) none

4. XDR fixes in which part of OS1 stack.

5. LDAP is____________service protocol.

6. Given definition for a function which returns a array of pointers with argument of int*.

7. Give a function declaration with no arguments which refers a two dimensional array

8. Pick up the correct function declaration.
1. void *[] name();
2. void int[][] name();
3. void ** name();
4. none of the above.

9. Give the difference between monolithic and microlithic kernal:
a. monolithic large
b. microlithic used in embedded systems.
c. none.

10. rPC coresponds to_______________in OSI stack.

11. Find the no.of page faults using LRU stack.
eg.3 4 4 6 7 8 1 2 .. ..

12.The inorder representation of a tree 41523 and preorder is 211513 Draw it?

13. When does a stack member will be initialised
(a) when object is created
(b) when object is initialised.
(c) doesnot depend on object.
(d) none.

14. Number of CPU in a multiprocess is contrassed by
(a) RISC nohere of CPU
(b) memory
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
15. Give the output of the following program
{char *s;
s="hot java";
strcpy(s,"solarrs java")
16. Give the output of the following program
{printf("hot java");
(i). When redirected to a screen what will be printed.
(ii). When redirected to file what will be printed.

17. Give the output of the following program
{int ret;

18. Give the output of the following program
{char *p='a';
int *i=100/*p;
what will be the value of *i= 1

19. Which data structure gives efficient search
1 B-tree
2 binary tree
3 array
4 linked list

20. Find the error in the following program
struct point
{struct point *next;
int data;
{int i;

21. Mutex and _________are similar locking mechanisms.

22. A complex question on pointers and functions.

23. SNMP and SMIP transport layer protocols for TCP/IP&OSI.

24 UNIX: difference between select and poll
TATA Infotech : Company Profile

Sample Paper
 Written Test
The test consists of two parts.
Part A: Aptitude -- 100 questions 100 marks subdivided as:
Verbal Section
Letter series (alternately number series can be given)
Numerical Problems
Figures & Flowcharts
Part B: Computer knowledge test (purely technical) -- 50 questions 50 marks
The normal topics incl. C, Operating Systems (both Windows and UNIX),
DBMS etc are covered.
A different paper is held for EE students.
The pattern of the test is known to vary from time to time.
Click here to see the sample test.
 Interview
The interview questions were mainly on data structures, computer architecture, operating systems and computer network etc.
TATA Infotech Sample Paper

Directions: Give the synonyms for the following words
1. Depreciation: deflation, depression, devaluation, fall, slump
2. Deprecate : feel and express disapproval,
3. Incentive : thing one encourages one to do (stimulus)
4. Echelon : level of authority or responsibility
5. Innovation : make changes or introduce new things
6. Intermittent : externally stopping and then starting
7. Detrimental: harmful
8. Conciliation : make less angry or more friendly

9. Orthodox: conventional or traditional, superstitious

10. Fallible : liable to error

11. Volatile : ever changing

12. Manifest: clear and obvious

13. Connotation : suggest or implied meaning of expression

14. Reciprocal: reverse or opposite

15. Agrarian : related to agriculture

16. Vacillate : undecided or dilemma

17. Expedient : fitting proper, desirable

18. Simulate : produce artificially resembling an existing one.

19. Access : to approach

20. Compensation: salary

21. Truncate : shorten by cutting

22. Adherence : stick

23. Heterogeneous: non similar things

24. Surplus : excessive

25. Assess : determine the amount or value

26. Cognizance : knowledge

27. Retrospective : review

28. Naive : innocent, rustic

29. Equivocate : tallying on both sides, lie, mislead

30. Postulate : frame a theory

31. Latent : dormant, secret

32. Fluctuation : wavering,

33. Eliminate : to reduce

34. Affinity : strong liking

35. Expedite : hasten

36. Console : to show sympathy

37. Adversary : opposition

38. Affable : lovable or approachable

39. Decomposition : rotten

40. Agregious : apart from the crowd, especially bad

41. Conglomeration: group, collection

42. Aberration: deviation

43. Augury : prediction

44. Creditability : ability to common belief, quality of being credible

45. Coincident: incidentally

46. Constituent : accompanying

47. Differential : having or showing or making use of

48. Litigation : engaging in a law suit

49. Moratorium: legally or officially determined period of delay before
fulfillment of the agreement of paying of debts.

50. Negotiate : discuss or bargain

51. Preparation : act of preparing

52. Preponderant : superiority of power or quality

53. Relevance : quality of being relevant

54. Apparatus : appliances

55. Ignorance : blindness, in experience

56. Obsession: complex enthusiasm

57. precipitate : speed, active
Directions: In the following questions complete the series
NOTE: This section is quite tough and consists of 26 questions to be done in 10 minutes. Please keep track of time.
1. A C B D E F G I - I H K J L
Ans. H

2. A I Z B E Y C I X D I - G E N J W
Ans. W

3. A D G J M P - R W T S
Ans. S

4. A B C E F G I J K - M L O N P
Ans. M

5. A B F G K L P Q - T S V U W
Ans. U

6. J W X U V S T - Q P S E T
Ans. Q

7. A R H X Y T D T W S T - N P T K R
Ans. P

8. F M B I P Z V I E V - I R Y O U

9. N Z I Y C X KW F - J F V M Y
Ans. V

10. A A S A S P A S P K A - R Q T S U
Ans. S

11. A E C P S - T R U E
Ans. U

12. B B P R D D L N F F I K - H Q J I K
Ans. H

13 A Z E X I V M T - R Q N S O
Ans. Q

14. A B D G K P - L I W U X
Ans. U

15. B C D A E G H I F J L M N L K N M O
Ans. K

16. X W E F G V U H I J K - P N S R T
Ans. T

17. O D J T O P Q N O E R T - Q O U V W
Ans. O

18. P R N U U P E J R B B - H V U N E
Ans. E

19.L U L M G M N F N P S - O N Q P S
Ans. P

1. 420% OF 7.79 = ?
Ans. 32.718

2. 3427 / 16.53 = ?
Ans. 202
3. 10995 /95 = ?
4. 43+557-247 =?
Ans. 353
5. 3107*3.082= ?
Ans. 9591
6. 48.7 + 24.9 - 8.7 = ?
Ans. 64.90
7.525.0/47.8 = ?
Ans. 11
8. (135-30-14)*7 - 6 +2 = ?
Ans. 3
9. 3/8 * 5.04=?
Ans. 1.89
10. 697 /219 = ?
Ans. 3.18
11.8/64 +64/16 =?
Ans. 4.14
12. 298 * 312 / 208 = ?
Ans. 453.54
13. 0.33 *1496 /13 = ?
Ans. 37.98
14.0.26 + 1/8 = ?
Ans. 0.385
15. 66.17+1/3= ?
Ans. 67.03
16. 2.84+1/4= ?
Ans. 3.09
17. 33% OF 450 = ?
Ans. 148.5
18. 907.54 / 0,3073= ?
19.There are two categories of persons in ratio A:B = 2:3. A type earns 2.5 dollars/hr and
B type 1 dollar/hr total money earned by both is 24dollars. Then what is the total number of persons
Ans. 15
20. Total balls are z, the number of red balls is n and the remaining are blak balls,then the % of black
balls equal to ?
Ans. (z - n) / z*100
21. If A = C, B = 2D what should be done to make the ratio same. i.e.a/b = c/d
Ans. Multiply A by 2
22. If P=Total number of components, Q = number of defective components .What is the % of non defective components?
Ans. (p-q) / p*100
23. If the cost of an article is x , first discount given is y% of cost, second discount given is z% of cost .
The selling price of x is

Ans. x (1-y / 100) (1- z / 100)
24.Which of the following are prime numbers
(a) 119
(b) 115
(c) 127
(d) none
Ans. (c)
25. A / B = C; C > D then
(a) A is always greater than D
(b) C is always greater than D
(c) B is always less than D
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
26. If B>C and AAns. ( A + B )C
27. If for H hours of work the salary is S and the employee gets x hours of medical leave, then what is the salary/hr ?
Ans. s/H-x
28. ( 1/6 of 596) / (0.695) = ?
Ans. 142
29. 35-30 + 4/7 - 5 + 1 = ?

Ans. 3
30. 10995 + 95 = ?
Ans. 11090
31. If on a salary of Rs."S" per month,one has to pay one tax of x Rs. and a second type of tax of y Rs
then % of salary taken home is?

Ans. s-(x+y)/s * 100
32. B>A then which expression will be highest value
(a) A-B
(b) AB
(c) A+B
(d) Can't Say
Ans. (b)
33. K, L are men who take home a salary of x, y respectively.The total amount taken home is
Ans. Kx + Ly

34. If out of X bulbs y bulbs are broken;The % of non broken bulbs
Ans. (x-y) / x*100

35. If on a salary s per month, a tax of x% of the salary and another of r% of the salary is deducted what
is the income.

Ans. s*(1-(x+r)/100
36. 0.512 * 18902358 =?
Ans. 9678007.296
37. If the % of defective balls is 10% balls,and the number of defective balls is 5.The number of balls is


38. 6.29% of 2.8 =?
Ans. 0.18
39. 0.398 * 456= ?
Ans. 181.49

40. 0 < x < 1 which is greater
(a) 1/x2
(b) 1/x
(c) x
(d) x2

Ans. (a)
41. If c = a/b; a-1 = c, what is the relation between a and b?

Ans. b = a/a-1
42. What is the sum of 7 consecutive odd numbers with 27 as the fourth number

Directions: There are 7 flow charts and each has 5-6 blank rectangles/diamonds with
sub question number in the rectangle/diamond. You have to fill the blank from the
5 options given against respective question number
NOTE: These types of questions are not at all tough. You have to understand the logic and then it is very easy to fill the blanks. Some information is provided for getting to the answers. There will be blanks which have to be filled.
Examples of flow charts asked to be filled :
(1) There are 3 boxes of 3 balls each. you have to select the heaviest among all.
(2) There are red and black balls in a box. You select some balls from the blocks. If the ball chosen is red then you get one point. If the chosen ball is ball black and previous ball is red then you get two points. For winning u have to get seven points. No point for selecting consecutive balls of the same color.
(3)Classify objects in class A, class B and scrap. for classing you have to do different tests such as weight test, material test etc.
(4)There is production process in which action depends on temperature and pressure and we have some temperature and pressure controls. Draw a flowchart to complete the process.
(5)Find max. and min. of the 12 nos. in an array. Arrange the array in ascending order and find the maximum and
minimum value in the array
(6)Diffrent age group are given and also diffrent salary slabs are given. Depending on the salary group as well as his group you have to classify the group of people in particular class.
TCS : C Sample Paper

This test consists of 50 questions. The Set Code for this paper is D.
1. The C language terminator is
(a) semicolon
(b) colon
(c) period
(d) exclamation mark

2. What is false about the following -- A compound statement is
(a) A set of simple statments
(b) Demarcated on either side by curly brackets
(c) Can be used in place of simple statement
(d) A C function is not a compound statement.

3. What is true about the following C Functions
(a) Need not return any value
(b) Should always return an integer
(c) Should always return a float
(d) Should always return more than one value

4. Main must be written as
(a) The first function in the program
(b) Second function in the program
(c) Last function in the program
(d) Any where in the program

5. Which of the following about automatic variables within a function is correct ?
(a) Its type must be declared before using the variable
(b) Tthey are local
(c) They are not initialised to zero
(d) They are global

6. Write one statement equivalent to the following two statements
Choose from one of the alternatives
(a) return(sqr(a));
(b) printf("sqr(a)");
(c) return(a*a*a);
(d) printf("%d",sqr(a));

7. Which of the following about the C comments is incorrect ?
(a) Ccommentscan go over multiple lines
(b) Comments can start any where in the line
(c) A line can contain comments with out any language statements
(d) Comments can occur within comments

8. What is the value of y in the following code?
if(x=6) y=7;
else y=1;
(a) 7
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 6

9. Read the function conv() given below
conv(int t){
int u;
u=5/9 * (t-32);
What is returned
(a) 15
(b) 0
(c) 16.1
(d) 29

10. Which of the following represents true statement either x is in the range of 10 and 50 or y is zero
(a) x >= 10 && x <= 50 || y = = 0

(b) x<50
(c) y!=10 && x>=50
(d) None of these

11. Which of the following is not an infinite loop ?
(a) while(1)\{ ....}
(b) for(;;)
(c) x=0;
/*x unaltered within the loop*/
while(x = = 0);
(d) # define TRUE 0

12. What does the following function print?
func(int i)
{ if(i%2)return 0;
else return 1;}
int =3;
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 2

13. How does the C compiler interpret the following two statements
(a) p=p+x;

For questions 14,15,16,17 use the following alternatives
14. '9'
15. "1 e 02"
16. 10e05
17. 15

18. Read the folllowing code
# define MAX 100
# define MIN 100
else if(xx=-1;
if the initial value of x=200,what is the value after executing this code?
(a) 200
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) 50

19. A memory of 20 bytes is allocated to a string declared as char *s
then the following two statements are executed:
what is the value of l ?

20. Given the piece of code
int a[50];
int *pa;
To access the 6th element of the array which of the following is incorrect?
(a) *(a+5)
(b) a[5]
(c) pa[5]
(d) *(*pa + 5}

21. Consider the following structure:
struct num nam{
int no;
char name[25];
struct num nam n1[]={{12,"Fred"},{15,"Martin"},{8,"Peter"},{11,Nicholas"}};
printf("%d%d",n1[2],no,(*(n1 + 2),no) + 1);
What does the above statement print?
(a) 8,9
(b) 9,9
(c) 8,8
(d) 8,unpredictable value

22. Identify the in correct expression
(a) a=b=3=4;
(b) a=b=c=d=0;
(c)float a=int b=3.5;
(d)int a; float b; a=b=3.5;

23. Regarding the scope of the varibles;identify the incorrect statement:
(a)automatic variables are automatically initialised to 0
(b)static variables are are automatically initialised to 0
(c)the address of a register variable is not accessiable
(d)static variables cannot be initialised with any expression

24. cond 1?cond 2?cond 3?:exp 1:exp 2:exp 3:exp 4;
is equivalent to which of the following?
(a)if cond 1
exp 1;
else if cond 2
exp 2;
else if cond 3
exp 3;
else exp 4;
(b) if cond 1
if cond 2
if cond 3
exp 1;
else exp 2;
else exp 3;
else exp 4;
(c) if cond 1 && cond 2 && cond 3
exp 1 |exp 2|exp 3|exp 4;
(d) if cond 3
exp 1;
else if cond 2 exp 2;
else if cond 3 exp 3;
else exp 4;

25. The operator for exponencation is
(a) **
(b) ^
(c) %
(d) not available

26. Which of the following is invalid
(a) a+=b
(b) a*=b
(c) a>>=b
(d) a**=b

27. What is y value of the code if input x=10
if (x==10)
else if(x==9)
else y=8;

28. What does the following code do?
fn(int n,int p,int r){
static int a=p;
case 4:a+=a*r;
case 3:a+=a*r;
case 2:a+=a*r;
case 1:a+=a*r;}}
(a)computes simple interest for one year
(b)computes amount on compound interest for 1 to 4 years
(c)computes simple interest for four year
(d)computes compound interst for 1 year

29. a=0;
How many times does the loop occurs?

30. How many times does the loop iterated ?
for (i=0;i=10;i+=2)
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) None of these

31. What is incorrect among the following
A recursive function
(a) calls itself
(b) is equivalent to a loop
(c) has a termination condition
(d) does not have a return value at all

32. Which of the following go out of the loop if expn 2 becoming false
(a) while(expn 1)\{...if(expn 2)continue;}
(b) while(!expn 1)\{if(expn 2)continue;...}
(c) do{..if(expn 1)continue;..}while(expn 2);
(d) while(!expn 2)\{if(expn 1)continue;..\}

33. Consider the following program
{unsigned int i=10;
How many times the loop will get executed

34.Pick out the add one out
(a) malloc()
(b) calloc()
(c) free()
(d) realloc()

35.Consider the following program
int a[5]={1,3,6,7,0};
int *b;
The value of b[-1] is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) -6
(d) none

36. # define prod(a,b)=a*b

int x=2;
int y=3;
printf("%d",prod(x+2,y-10)); }
the output of the program is
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) None

37.Consider the following program segment
int n,sum=1;
case 2:sum=sum+2;
case 3:sum*=2;
If n=2, what is the value of sum
(a) 0
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) None of these

38. Identify the incorrect one
(a) 1 only
(b) 1&3
(c) 3 only
(d) All of the above

39. The format specified for hexa decimal is
(a) %d
(b) %o
(c) %x
(d) %u

40. Find the output of the following program
int x=5, *p;
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 0
(d) none of these

41.Consider the following C code
int i=3,x;
i--; }
int func(int n){
static sum=0;
The final value of x is
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 1
(d) 3

43. Int *a[5] refers to
(a) array of pointers
(b) pointer to an array
(c) pointerto a pointer
(d) none of these

44.Which of the following statements is incorrect
(a) typedef struct new{
int n1;
char n2;
(b) typedef struct {
int n3;
char *n4;}ICE;
(c) typedef union{ int n5;
float n6;} UDT;
(d) #typedef union {
int n7;
float n8;} TUDAT;
TCS : Company Profile

Sample Test Papers
Profile of the company

 Written Test
Tata Consultancy Services conducts a multiple choice test. The test consists of four sections. The first section is the Verbal Section with 15 questions to be attempted in 6 minutes. The questions deal with words and their synonyms. You need a high level of vocabulary to do well in this part. The second section is a Quantitive aptitude section with 15 questions to be answered in 10 minutes. The questions deal with basic mathematics such as multiplication, percentages etc. This is the easiest among all the sections (try not to make silly mistakes). The third section is the Reading Comprehension section with 50 minutes to answer 60 questions. The fourth section is a 30 minutes Psychometric Test with 150 questions. These questions are generally simple personality based questions checking your ability to answer consistently. Usually only a Yes/No type answer is required for these questions.
The following sets of questions are available:
Sample Test1 Sample Test2
Candidates clearing the test and the interview are further required to clear a paper based on C and COBOL. This paper consists of 50 questions and is MCQ format.
Click here to see the sample C test.
 Interview
The test is followed by a Technical and a HR interview. The technical interview is highly specialized and covers almost all subjects you have done in your curriculum. However one is required to name his/her favorite subject on which most of the interview is focused. For Computer Engineers C, Operating Systems, DBMS, Microprocessors are mostly focused upon. Electronics Engineers can be grilled on DCLD, Microprocessors and Communications..
The HR interview which follows the technical interview is very general. The Hr interview is also important. Mostly questions are asked to test your temperament. You maybe asked your opinion on a variety of current affair topics. We were asked about Homosexuality, Lesbianism (the movie FIRE), Kashmir, Genome Project etc. In some cases questions regarding the company are asked.
 Profile
Tata Consultancy Services started in 1968. Mr.F.C Kohli who is presently the Deputy Chairman was entrusted with the job of steering TCS. The early days marked TCS resonsibility in managing the punch card operations of Tisco. The company, which was into management consultancy from day one, soon felt the need to provide solutions to its clients as well.TCS was the first Indian company to make forays into the US market with clients ranging from IBM, American Express, Sega etc. TCS is presently the top software services firm in Asia.
During the Y2K buildup, TCS had setup a Y2K factory in Chennai as a short-term strategy. Now, with E-business being the buzzword, the factory is developing solutions for the dotcom industries. Today, about 90 percent of TCS' revenue comes from consulting, while the rest from products. TCS has great training facilities. In addition to training around 5 percent of the revenue is spent upon its R&D centers like the Tata Research Design and Development Centre at Pune, along with a host of other centers at Mumbai and Hyderabad.
It benchmarked its quality standing, invested heavily in software engineering practices and built intellectual property-in terms of patents, code and branded products. At the same time, it expanded its relationships with technology partners and organizations, increased linkages with academic institutions and incubated technologies and ideas of people within TCS and outside. TCS has already patented 12 E-Commerce solution product packages and has filed six more applications for patent licenses.
Over $25 million were spent on enhancing hardware and software infrastructure. The company now has 72 offices worldwide. As many as seven centers were assessed at SEI CMM Level 5 last year(3.4 mistakes in a million opportunities). These include Chennai, Mumbai, Bangalore, Calcutta, Hyderabad and Lucknow. Several business and R&D relationship with global firms like IBM, General Electric, Unigraphics Solutions have been made.
The present CEO of the company is Mr. S. Ramadorai. The companies strength is about 14,000.
For more information about this company visit their homesite at http://www.tcs.com/

TCS Sample Paper #1

Directions for questions 1-15:Find the synonyms of the following words
1. Merry
Ans. Gay,Happy

2. Alienate
Ans. Estrange

3. Solicit
Ans. To request

Ans. To pile

Ans. Freight

Ans. Transient

7. Volume








Ans. Prudence
1. If two pencils cost 8 cents, then how much do 5 pencils cost?
Ans. 20 cents

2. Some work is done by two people in 24 minutes. One of them can do this work alone in 40 minutes. How much time does the second person take to do the same work ?
Ans. 60 minutes

3. A car is filled with four and half gallons of fuel for a round trip.If the amount of fuel taken while going is 1/4 more than the amount taken for coming, what is the amount of fuel consumed while coming back?
Ans.2 gallons

4. The lowest temperature in the night in a city A is 1/3 more than 1/2 the highest during the day. Sum of the lowest temperature and the highest temperature is 100 degrees. Then what is the low temp?
Ans.40 degrees

5. Javagal, who decided to go to weekened trip should not exceed 8 hours driving in a day. The average speed of forward journey is 40 miles/hr.Due to traffic on sundays, the return journey's average speed is 30 m/h. How far he can select a picnic spot?
a) 120 miles
b) between 120 and 140 miles
c) 160 miles
Ans. 120 miles

6. A salesperson by mistake multiplied a number and got the answer as 3, instead of dividing the number by 3.What is the answer he should have actually got?
Ans. 3

7. A building with height D shadow upto G. What is the height of a neighbouring building with a shadow of C feet.
Ans. (C*D)/G

8. A person was fined for exceeding the speed limit by 10 mph. Another person was also fined for exceeding the same speed limit by twice the same. If the second person was travelling at a speed of 35 mph, find the speed limit.
Ans. 15 mph

9. A bus started from bustand at 8.00am, and after staying for 30 minutes at a destination, it returned back to the busstand. The destination is 27 miles from the busstand. The speed of the bus is 18mph. During the return journey bus travels with 50% faster speed.At what time does it return to the busstand?
Ans. 11.00am

10. In a mixture, R is 2 parts and S is 1 part. In order to make S to 25% of the mixture, how much of R is to be added?
Ans.One part of R

11. Wind flows 160 miles in 330 min, for travelling 80 miles how much time does it require?
Ans. 2 hrs 45 mins

12. With a 4/5 full tank a vehicle can travel 12 miles, how far can it travel with a 1/3 full tank
Ans. 5 miles

13. There are two trees in a lawn. One grows at a rate 3/5 of the other in 4 years. If the total growth of trees is 8 ft. What is the height of the smaller tree after 2 years
Ans. 1 1/2 feet

14. Refer to the figure below.A ship started from P and moves at a speed of I miles per hour and another ship starts from L and moving with H miles per hour simultaneously.Where do the two ships meet?
PG H I J K L are the various stops in between denoted by || . The values g, h, i, j, k, l denote the distance between the ports.
Ans. Between I and J, closer to J

15. If A is travelling at 72 km per hour on a highway. B is travelling at a speed of 25 meters per second on a highway. What is the difference in their speeds in m/sec.
Ans. 1 m/sec

The critical reasoning section consists of some passages followed by 4 to 7 questions per passage. The questions are such that they require ability to read fast and comprehend. The questions asked in this section have three choices TRUE, FALSE, CAN'T SAY. Some examples of questions are given below. Please note that these passages are not the exact passages asked. The passages used a good deal of difficult words which have been removed in this reproduction. Also the passages appearing in the actual paper are much lengthier.
Directions: Answer the questions given below the passage or statement as true, false or can't say.
PASSAGE A: My father has no brothers. He has three sisters who has two childs each.
Answer 1-5 based on the passage A
1.My grandfather has two sons .
Ans. False

2. Three of my aunts have two sons
Ans. Can't say

3. My father is only child to his father
Ans. False

4. I have six cousins from my mother side
Ans. Can't say

5. I have one uncle
Ans. Can't say(uncle can be from the mother's side as well)

PASSAGE B: Ether injected into gallablader to dissolve colestrol based gallstones. This type one day treatment is enough for gallstones not for calcium stones. This method is alternative to surgery for millions of people who are suffering from this disease.
Answer questions 6-9 based on passage B
6.Calcium stones can be cured in oneday
Ans. False

7. Hundreds of people contains calcium stones
Ans. Can't say

8. Surgery is the only treatment to calcium stones
Ans. True

9. Ether will be injected into the gallbleder to cure the cholestrol based gall stones
Ans. True

PASSAGE C: Hacking is illegal entry into another computer. This happens mostly because of lack of knowledge of computer networking. With networks one machine can access to another machine.Hacking go about without knowing that each network is accredited to use network facility.
Answer questions 10-12 based on passage B
10. Hackers never break the code of the company which they work for
Ans. Can't say

11. Hacking is the only vulnerability of the computers for the usage of the data
Ans. False

12.Hacking is done mostly due to the lack of computer knowledge
Ans. False

PASSAGE C: Alphine tunnels are closed tunnels.In the past 30 yrs not even a single accident has been recorded for there is one accident in the rail road system. Even in case of a fire accident it is possible to shift the passengers into adjacent wagons and even the live fire can be detected and extinguished with in the duration of 30 min.
Answer questions 13-16 based on passage C
13. No accident can occur in the closed tunnels
Ans. True

14. Fire is allowed to live for 30 min
Ans. False

16. All the care that travel in the tunnels will be carried by rail shutters.

PASSAGE D: In the past helicopters were forced to ground or crash because of the formation of the ice on the rotors and engines. A new electronic device has been developed which can detect the watercontent in the atmosphere and warns the pilot if the temperature is below freezing temperature about the formation of the ice on the rotors and wings.
Answer questions 17-20 based on passage D
17.The electronic device can avoid formation of the ice on the wings

18. There will be the malfunction of rotor & engine because of formation of ice

19. The helicopters were to be crashed or grounded

20. There is only one device that warn about the formation of ice

PASSAGE E:In the survey conducted in mumbai out of 63 newly married house wives not a single house wife felt that the husbands should take equal part in the household work as they felt they loose their power over their husbands. Inspite of their careers they opt to do the kitchen work themselves after coming back to home. the wives get half as much leisure time as the husbands get at the week ends.
Answer questions 21-23 based on passage E
21.Housewives want the husbands to take part equally in the household

22. Wives have half as much leisure time as the husbands have
Ans. False

23. 39% of the men will work equally in the house in cleaning and washing
Ans. False

PASSAGE F:Copernicus is the intelligent. In the days of copernicus the transport and technology development was less & it took place weeks to comunicate a message at that time,wherein we can send it through satellite with in no time.Even with this fast developments it has become difficult to understand each other.
Answer questions 24-27 based on passage F
24. People were not intelligent during Copernicus days

25. Transport facilities are very much improved in noe a days
Ans.Can't say

26. Even with the fast developments of the techonology we can't live happily.
Ans. Can't say

27. We can understand the people very much with the development of communication
Ans. False.

PASSAGE G:Senior managers warned the workers that because of the intfoductors of japanese industry in the car market. There is the threat to the workers.They also said that there will be the reduction in the purchase of the sales of car in public.the interest rates of the car will be increased with the loss in demand.
Answer questions 28-31 based on passage G
28. Japanese workers are taking over the jobs of indian industry.

29.Managers said car interests will go down after seeing the raise in interest rates.

30. Japanese investments are ceasing to end in the car industry.
Ans. False

31. People are very interested to buy the cars.

PASSAGE H: In the totalitariturican days, the words have very much devalued. In the present day, they are becoming domestic that is the words will be much more devalued. In that days, the words will be very much effected in political area. but at present, the words came very cheap .We can say they come free at cost.
Answer questions 32-34 based on passage H
32.Totalitarian society words are devalued.

33. Totalitarians will have to come much about words

34. The art totalitatian society the words are used for the political speeches.
Ans. False

PASSAGE I:There should be copyright for all arts. The reele has came that all the arts has come under one copy right society,they were use the money that come from the arts for the developments . There may be a lot of money will come from the Tagore works. We have to ask the benifiters from Tagore work to help for the development of his works.
Answer questions 35-39 based on passage I
35. Tagore works are came under this copy right rule.
Ans. False

36. People are free to go to the public because of the copy right rule.
Ans.Can't say

38. People gives to theater and collect the money for development.
Ans.Can't say

39. We have ask the Tagore resedents to help for the developments of art.
Ans.Can't say

You don't need to fret much about this test. This test consists of 150 questions and is just a pyshcology test which should be answered confidently and doesn't require any preparation.One must try being consistent while answering as the same questions are repeatedly asked in different forms.Also one must answer all questions.Questions are of yes,no or can't say kind.
1. Will you be interested in social activities.
2. While going upstairs do you move two steps at a time.
3. Can you make friends with people of the same sex or with opposite sex also
4. Your friends consider you as a leader in your group
5. People think that your'e serious minded.
6. There are times you feel dull without any reason.
7. You host several parties
8. When relatives come to your house do you entertain them.
9. You can work for long hours without tireness.
10. In your company you want to lead the organisation.
TCS Sample Paper #2

Directions for questions 1-15:Find the synonyms of the following words
1. Depreciation
Ans. Deflation, Depression, Devaluation, fall, slump in value

2. Deprecate
Ans. Feel and express disapproval of

3. Incentive
Ans. Thing one encourages a person to do something

4. Echelon
Ans. Level of authority or responsibility

5. Innovation
Ans.To make changes or introduce new things

6. Intermittant
Ans. Externally stopping and then starting

7. Detrimental

8. Aberration
Ans. Deviation

9. Conciliation
Ans.To make less angry or more friendly

10. Orthodox
Ans.Conventional or superstitious

11. Fallible
Ans.Liable to err

12. Volatile
Ans.Ever changing

13. Manifestion
Ans.Clear or obvious

14. Connotation
Ans. Suggest in addition to the fundamental meaning

15. Reciprocal
Ans. Reverse, Opposite

1. There are 150 weights .Some are 1 kg weights and some are 2 kg weights. The sum of the weights is 260.What is the number of 1kg weights?
Ans. 40

2. A is driving on a highway when the police fines him for overspeeding and exceeding the limit by 10 km/hr.At the same time B is fined for overspeeding by twice the amount by which A exceeded the limit.If he was driving at 35 km/hr what is the speed limit for the road?
Ans. 15 kmph

3. A moves 3 kms east from his starting point . He then travels 5 kms north. From that point he moves 8 kms to the east.How far is A from his starting point?
Ans. 13 kms

4. A car travels 12 kms with a 4/5th filled tank.How far will the car travel with 1/3 filled tank?
Ans. 5 kms

5. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 8. When 18 is added to the number, the digits are reversed. Find the number?
Ans. 35

6. The cost of one pencil, two pens and four erasers is Rs.22 while the cost of five pencils, four pens and two erasers is Rs.32.How much will three pencils, three pens and three erasers cost?
Ans. 27

7. Fathers age is 5 times his son's age. 4 years back the father was 9 times older than son.Find the fathers' present age.
Ans. 40 years

8. What number should be added to or subtracted from each term of the ratio 17 : 24 so that it becomes equal to 1 : 2.
Ans. 10 should be subtracted

9. What is the 12th term of the series 2, 5, 8, ....
Ans. 35

10. If 20 men take 15 days to to complete a job, in how many days can 25 men finish that work?
Ans. 12 days

11. In a fraction, if 1 is added to both the numerator at the denominator, the fraction becomes 1/2. If numerator is subtracted from the denominator, the fraction becomes 3/4. Find the fraction.
Ans. 3/7

12. If Rs.1260 is divided between between A, B and C in the ratio 2:3:4, what is C's share?
Ans. Rs. 560

13. A shopkeeper bought a watch for Rs.400 and sold it for Rs.500.What is his profit percentage?
Ans. 25%

14. What percent of 60 is 12?
Ans. 20%

15. Hansie made the following amounts in seven games of cricket in India: Rs.10, Rs.15, Rs.21, Rs.12, Rs.18, Rs.19 and Rs.17(all figures in crores of course).Find his average earnings.
Ans. Rs.16 crore
This section is basically just a reading comprehension section.The critical reasoning section consists of some passages followed by 4 to 7 questions per passage.The questions are such that they require ability to read fast and comprehend.The questions asked in this section have three choices TRUE, FALSE, CAN'T SAY.Some examples of passages are given in test 1.For further practice you may go through any GRE or CAT book which will provide you with ample practice regarding these kinds of questions.

This test consists of 150 questions and is just a pyshcology test which should be answered confidently and doesn't require any preparation.One must try being consistent while answering as the same questions are repeatedly asked in different forms.Also one must answer all questions.Questions are of yes or no kind.
Are you sincere?
If you find a purse in the market with loads of money would you return it to the rightful owner?
While climbing up the stairs do you take two steps at a time?
Do you drink and smoke more than you think you should?
Are you the life of the party you attend?
Are you shy?
ThinkSoft Paper Pattern
Part A -> Replace the underlined word in the given sentence with the options given below without changing the meaning of the Word. 5 questions in this section.
Part B -> There will be a sentence which will have 4 underlined words you have to find which word is wrong - 5 questions.
Part C -> Antonyms - 5 questions
Part D -> Synonyms – 5 questions.
Part E -> Logical Reasoning – 5 Questions
Part F -> Reading Comprehension – 5 questions
Part G -> Numerical Aptitude – 25 questions
Part H -> Data interpretation – 5 questions.
Paper contains about 60 questions for 1 hr
Part A : English test about 15-20 questions each carries 1 mark
Part B : quantitative test
Part C : Logical Reasoning
& some more.
Some questions:
Questions 1: From given table 4/5 questions were asked carries 5 marks each
Average Good Excelt Total
Male | 10
Fem | 32
Total| 30
i) 1/2 of the students were Good & excellent
ii)40% of th students are female
iii)1/3rd of male stuedents are average
Soln. :
Total Students * 40/100 = 32
=> tot studs = 32*100/40 = 80
=> tot Male studs = 80 - 32 = 48
48/3 = 16 male students are average
40 - 16 = 24 female ------ average
32 - 24 = 8 ------- -- good
16/80 = 24/80 => 2:3 proportion of male & female studs are average
Average good Exc tot
M | 16 22 10 48
F | 24 8 0 32
T | 40 30 10 80
Questions 2:
The statement "All shirts in the store are on sale" is false.
Which of the foll stns are true?
i)No shirts in the store are on sale
ii)Not all shirts in the store are on sale
iii)All shirts in the store are non-sale prices
iv)Some shirts in the store are on sale
Wilco Sample Paper

Q1. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps?
Ans.46 steps.
Q2. The average age of 10 members of a committee is the same as it was 4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced by a young member. Find how much younger is the new member ?
Ans.40 years.
Q3. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from container A water is poured into container B which becomes 1/3 full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in container A?
Q4. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?
Ans. AE = 10.
Q5. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC?
Ans. BC = 4 cm.
Q6. Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace.
Ans. 64/2210.
Q7. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ?
Ans. 991.
Q8. If Log2 x - 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.
Q9. The square of a two digit number is divided by half the number. After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then divided by 2. The digits of the resulting number are the same as those in the original number, but they are in reverse order. The ten's place of the original number is equal to twice the difference between its digits. What is the number?
Ans. 46
Q10. Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.?
Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1 twenty-five paise coins.
Q11. A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top?
Ans.18 hours.
Q12. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12
Ans. 9
Q13. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth Rs.7 a kg., how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of the mixture?
Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs.
Q14. A wizard named Nepo says "I am only three times my son's age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are a mere 1240 years old." How old is Nepo?
Ans. 360 years old.
Q15. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two behind him. How many are they?
Ans. Three.
Q16. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the first day?
Ans. Eight.
Q17. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs?
Ans. Five minutes.
Q18. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does the clock gain or lose?
Ans. 32 8/11 minutes.
Q19. Solve for x and y: 1/x - 1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2 = 5/9.
Ans. x = 3/2 or -3 and y = 3 or -3/2.
Q20. Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed?
Ans. 20 %.
Q21. Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6.
Ans. 10.
Q23. Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979?
Ans. Friday.
Q24. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed?
Ans. 1700 men.
Q25. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball?
Ans. 3720.
Q26. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be filled?
Ans. 167 minutes.
Q27. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time? Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.
Q1. typedef struct
{char *;
nodeptr next;
} * nodeptr ;

What does nodeptr stand for?
Q2. What does. int *x[](); means ?
Q3. struct list{
int x;
struct list *next;

the struct head.x =100

Is the above assignment to pointer is correct or wrong ?
Ans. Wrong
Q4.What is the output of the following ?

int i;
Ans. 4
Q5. FILE *fp1,*fp2;


Find the Error, If Any?
Ans. no error. But It will over writes on same file.
What are the output(s) for the following ?
Q6. #include
char *f()
{char *s=malloc(8);

char *f();
printf("%c",*f()='A'); }
Q7. #define MAN(x,y) (x)>(y)?(x):(y)
{int i=10;
printf(%d %d %d %d,i,j,k);
Ans. 10 5 0
Q8. a=10;
b=5; c=3;
if(a printf(%d %d %d %d a,b,c,d);
printf("%d %d %d %d a,b,c,d);
Q9. #include
show(int t,va_list ptr1)
int a,x,i;
printf("\n %d",a);
int x;

Q10. main()
Q11. main()
int i = 10;
printf(" %d %d %d \n", ++i, i++, ++i);
Q12. #include
int *p, *c,i;
i = 5;
p = (int*) (malloc(sizeof(i)));
*p = 10;
printf("\n%d %d",i,*p);
c = (int*) calloc(2);
Q13. #define MAX(x,y) (x) >(y)?(x):(y)
int i=10,j=5,k=0;
k= MAX(i++,++j);
enum _tag{ left=10, right, front=100, back};
printf("left is %d, right is %d, front is %d, back is %d",left,right,front,back);
Q15. main()
int a=10,b=20;
Q16.#define PRINT(int) printf("int = %d ",int)
int x,y,z;
Q17. #include
char s[] = "Bouquets and Brickbats";
printf("\n%c, ",*(&s[2]));
printf("%s, ",s+5);
Q18. main()
struct s1
char *str;
struct s1 *ptr;
static struct s1 arr[] = {
struct s1 *p[3];
int i;
p[i] = arr[i].ptr;
printf("%s\n",((*p)++)->str); }
Q19. .main()
char *p = "hello world!";
p[0] = 'H';

Wipro : Company Profile

Sample Test Papers
Profile of the company

 Written Test
The Wipro test consists of 75 questions. It is a multiple choice test with no negative marking. The paper emphasises on your basic 11th and 12th standard physics,chemistry,maths with about 40-45 questions on these three subjects. There are about 10-15 data sufficiency and aptitude questions and about 15-20 technincal questions on your respective branch of engineering. A seperate paper is held for the various branches of engineering.The PCM and aptitude based questions are the same for everyone and different engineering branches have their own set of questions. Everyone though has an option of writing a hardware or software paper.
The following sets of questions are available:
Sample Test1 Sample Test2 Sample Test3
A part of the Wipro group, Wipro Infotech also has its own campus recruitments. Its test is technical with 50 MCQ to be done. A sample paper for Wipro Infotech for EE branch is given below
Click here to see the sample test for Wipro Infotech.

 Interview
The test is followed by a Technical and a HR interview. The technical interview is highly specialized and covers almost all subjects you have done in your curriculum. However one is required to name his/her favorite subject on which most of the interview is focussed. For Computer Engineers C, Operating Systems, DBMS, Microprocessors are mostly focused upon. Electronics Engineers can be grilled on DCLD, Microprocessors and Communications.
The HR interview which follows the technical interview is very general. In most cases questions regarding the company are asked.

 Profile
Wipro was previously known as Western India Vegetable Products Ltd was started by Mr.M.H Premji. The company manufactured vegetable oil, vegetable ghee and laundry soap. In 1966, upon the untimely demise of M.H. Premji, his son, Mr.Azim Hasham Premji, a 21-year-old student of engineering at Stanford University, was called upon to run the company. Under him, Wipro embarked on an ambitious phase of expansion. The business diversified into fluid power, soaps, toiletries, lighting and babycare products, and distribution was considerably expanded.Some of the important consumer products made by Wipro include soaps, babycare products, bulbs, tubelights, shampoos, powder etc. The financial strength of the consumer care division powered further diversifications, particularly in infotech and healthcare.
The Infotech era began in the late seventies and Wipro set up its IT business in Bangalore in 1980. Wipro became the No.1 listed company in the country in just 15 years. In a reorganisation, the firm went public with Wipro Technologies, the global IT services subsidiary, whose gross income grew by 65 percent to reach Rs.1042 crore($240 million).Wipro's software business was assessed at SEI CMM Level 5(.Wipro's technology divisions, global R&D and telecom solutions contributed 46 percent of the software revenue, and the balance was accounted for by enterprise solutions business. E-commerce contributed 15 percent of enterprise solutions revenue for the year. Sales and other incomes of the second division,Wipro Infotech, the Indian IT services and products business that takes care of networking solutions, customer services, computers and peripherals, grew by 20 percent to Rs.825 crore.
Wipro Technologies soon plans to tap the global capital body through an issue of American Depository Receipts(ADR) or Global Depository Receipts(GDR). It established its headquaters in Santa Clara, US, with Mr.Vivek Paul as the company's president and CEO.
The pay package is around Rs.17,000(approx.) for the year 2000 recruits.
Mr.Azim H. Premji is presently the Chairman. Mr.Premji owns about 75 percent of the Wipro stock. He also happens to be the richest Indian in the world.
For more information about this company visit their homesite at www.wipro.com

Wipro Infotech Sample Paper

1. Add 79H and 86H and tell the contents of flags
2. Scr is used for _____ ( ac, dc , both )
3. Push pull amplifier is used to remove which harmonics ( even , odd , both )
4. PAM is demodulated using ___ ( low pass filter , high pass filter )
5. 16k memory is needed. How many chips with 12 address buses and 4 data
buses are needed.
6. AM wave is detected using _________ detector
7. Which flip flop is used for shift registers
8. Program counter does what __ (stores a memory address, address of the present instruction)
9. In a bistable multivibrator communication capacitor is used for ______ ( speed up response , ac coupling)
10. Totem pole is what?
11. Time constant for an integrator and differentiator should be ( small , high etc.)
12.TV waves are __ ( sky waves , space waves etc.)
13.Which configuration has highest i/p imp. ( ce , cb , cc )
14. Parabolic antenna with 2degree angle. What is its directivity.
15. Given 10 mhz pe modulation and we got a 100 mhz band.
How many channels can be there.
16. If o/p power is doubled by how much does the sound increase ( 1db,2db,3db )

Wipro Sample Paper #1

1. An electron moving in an electromagnetic field moves in a
(a) In a straight path
(b) Along the same plane in the direction of its propagation
(c) Opposite to the original direction of propagation
(d) In a sine wave
Ans. (b)

2. The total work done on the particle is equal to the change in its kinetic energy
(a) Always
(b) Only if the forces acting on the body are conservative.
(c) Only if the forces acting on the body are gravitational.
(d) Only if the forces acting on the body are elastic.
Ans. (a)

3. The following unit measure energy:
(a) Kilo-watt hour.
(b) Volt*volt/sec*ohm.
(c) Pascal*foot*foot
(d) (Coulomb*coulomb)*farad
Ans. (a)

4. Astronauts in stable orbits around the earth are in a state of weightlessness because
(a) There is no gravitational force acting on them.
(b) The satellite and the air inside it have an acceleration equal to that of gravitational acceleration there.
(c) The gravitational force of the earth and the sun balance giving null resultant.
(d) There is no atmosphere at the height at which the satellites move.
Ans. (b)

5. An organ pipe, open at both ends and another organ pipe closed at one end,
will resonate with each other, if their lengths are in the ratio of
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:4
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
Ans. (c)

6. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas
(a) Its internal energy increases.
(b) Its internal energy decreases.
(c) Its internal energy does not change.
(d) The work done by the gas is not equal to the quantity of heat absorbed by it.
Ans. (c)

7. A parallel plate capaciator is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected.
If the plates of the capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles
(a) The charge on the capacitor increases.
(b) The voltage across the plates increases.
(c) The capacitance increases.
(d) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor decreases.
Ans. (b)

8. Two equal negative charges q are fixed at point (0,a) and (0,-a) on the y-axis.
A positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a,0) on the x-axis. The charge Q will
(a) Execute simple harmonic motion about the origin
(b) Move to the origin and remain at rest
(c) Move to infinity
(d) Execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion
Ans. (d)

9. A square conducting loop of length Lon a side carries a current I.
The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is
(a) Independant of L
(b) Proportional to L*L
(c) Inversely proportoinal to L
(d) Directly proportional to L
Ans. (c)

10. The focal length of a convex lens when placed in air and then in water will
(a) Increase in water with respect to air
(b) Increase in air with respect to water
(c) Decrease in water with respect to. air
(d) Remain the same
Ans. (a)

11. The maximum kinectic energy of the photoelectron emitted from the surface is dependant on
(a) The intensity of incident radiation
(b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface
Ans. (c)

12. An electron orbiting in a circular orbit around the nucleus of the atom
(a) Has a magnetic dipole moment
(b) Exerts an electric force on the nucleus equal to that on it by the nucleus
(c) Does not produce a magnetic induction at the nucleus
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

13. The X-rays beam coming from an X-ray tube will be:
(a) Monochromatic
(b) Having all wavelengths smaller than a certain minimum wavelength
(c) Having all wavelengths larger than a certain minimum wavelength
(d) Having all wavelengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength
Ans. (c)

14. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number
(b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Always equal to its atomic number
(d) Sometimes more and sometimes equal to its atomic number
Ans. (d)

15. Two successive elements belonging to the first transition series have the same number
of electrons partially filling orbitals. They are
(a) V and Cr
(b) Ti and V
(c) Mn and Cr
(d) Fe and Co
Ans. (c)

16. When n+l has the same value for two or more orbitals,the new electron enters the orbital where
(a) n is maximum
(b) n is minimum
(c) l is maximum
(d) l is minimum
Ans. (b)

17. A balloon filled with ethylene is pricked with a sharp pointed needle and quickly placed in a tank
full of hydrogen at the same pressure. After a while the balloon would have
(a) Shrunk
(b) Enlarged
(c) Completely collapsed
(d) Remain unchanged in size
Ans. (b)

18. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The ratio of the mean speed to the rms speed is independant of temperature
(b) Tthe square of the mean speed of the molecules is equal to the mean squared speed at a certain temperature
(c) Mean kinetic energy of the gas molecules at any given temperature is independant of the mean speed
(d) None
Ans. (b)

19. Which of the following statements represent Raoult's Law
(a) Mole fraction of solvent = ratio of vapour pressure of the solution to vapour pressure of the solvent
(b) Mole fraction of solute = ratio of vapour pressure of the solution to vapour pressure of the solvent
(c) Mole fraction of solute = lowering of vapour pressure of the solution
(d) Mole fraction of solvent = lowering of vapour pressure of the solution
Ans. (a)

20. Elements having the same atomic number and the same atomic mass are known as
(a) Isotopes
(b) Isotones
(c) Isomers
(d) None of the above

21.Which is the most acidic amongst
(a) Nitrophenol
(b) O-toulene
(c) Phenol
(d) Cresol

22. Pure water does not conduct electricity because it is
(a) Almost not ionised
(b) Low boiling
(c) Neutral
(d) Readily decomposed
Ans. (a)

23. In a salt bridge, KCl is used because
(a) It is an electrolyte
(b) The transference number of K+ and Cl¯ is nearly the same
(c) It is a good conductor of electricity
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

24. A depolarizer used in the dry cell batteries is
(a) KCl
(b) MnO2
(c) KOH
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

25. The hydrolysis of alkyl halides by aqueous NaOH is best termed as
(a) Electrophylic substitution reaction
(b) Electrophylic addition reaction
(c) Nnucleophylic addition reaction
(d) Nucleophylic substitution reaction
Ans. (d)

26. The hydrocarbon that gives a red precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is (where '' means a triple bond)
(a) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
(b) CH3-CC-CH3
(c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
(d) CH3-CH2-CCH
Ans. (d)

27. Which of the following reagents is neither neutral nor basic
(a) Lucas' reagent
(b) Tollen's reagent
(c) Bayer's reagent
(d) Fehling's solution
Ans. (a)

28. The substance which is most easily nitrated
(a) Toluene
(b) Bbenzene
(c) Nitrobenzene
(d) Chlorobenzene
Ans. (a)

29. Carbylamine reaction is a test for
(a) Primary amine
(b) Secondary amine
(c) Tertiary amine
(d) Quarternary ammonium salt
Ans. (a)

30. Which of the following oxides cannot be reduced by carbon to obtain metal
(a) ZnO
(b) Al2O3
(c) Fe2O3
(d) PbO
Ans. (b)

31. Which of the following is not an oxide ore?
(a) Cassiterite
(b) Siderite
(c) Pyrolusite
(d) Bauxite
Ans. (b)

32. Which among the following is called philosopher's wool
(a) Cellulose
(b) Calamine
(c) Stellite
(d) Cerussite
Ans. (c)

33. Out of 10 white, 9 black and 7 red balls, in how many ways can we select one or more balls
(a) 234
(b) 52
(c) 630
(d) 879
Ans. (d)

34. A and B throw a dice. The probability that A's throw is not greater than B's is
(a) 5/12
(b) 7/12
(c) 11/12
(d) 5/36
Ans. (b)

35. Given two numbers a and b. Let A denote the single AM between these and S denote the sum of n AMs
between them. Then S/A depends upon
(a) n
(b) n,a
(c) n,b
(d) n,a,b
Ans. (a)

36. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax²+bx+c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals,
then, a/c, b/a, c/b are in
(a) AP
(b) GP
(c) HP
(d) None of the these
Ans. (c)

In the following questions ~ represents the integral sign-for eg. 1~2[f(x)] means integration of
the function f(x) over the interval 1 to2.
37. Value of -1~2[|2-x²|]dx, ie integration of the function |2-x²| over the interval -1 to 2.
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)

38. If 0~[log sinx]dx=k,then the value of 0~/4[log(1 + tan x)]dx ,where stands for pi,is
(a) -k/4
(b) k/4
(c) -k/8
(d) k/8
Ans. (c)

39. If a,b,c be in GP and p,q be respectively AM between a,b and b,c then
(a) 2/b=1/p+1/q
(b) 2/b=1/p-1/q
(c) 2=a/p-c/q
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

40. A solution of KMnO4 is reduced to MnO2 .The normality of solution is 0.6.The molarity is
(a) 1.8M
(b) 0.6M
(c) 0.1M
(d) 0.2M
Ans. (d)
The questions 41-46 are based on the following pattern.The problems below contain a question
and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the
statements are sufficient for answering the questions.The correct answer is
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement(II) alone is sufficient but statement(I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
41. What is John's age?
(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago
Ans. (C)
42. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?
(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C
Ans. (D)
43.Is A=C ? A,B,C are real numbers
(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B
Ans. (C)
44. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?
(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2
Ans. (A)
45.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?
(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow
Ans. (D)

46. What is the value of A if A is an integer?
(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0
Ans. (B)

47. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?
(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km
Ans. (b)

48. X's father's wife's father's granddaughter uncle will be related to X as
(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)

49. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31
(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45
Ans. (a)

50. If in a certain code "RANGE" is coded as 12345 and "RANDOM" is coded as 123678.
Then the code for the word "MANGO" would be
(a) 82357
(b) 89343
(c) 84629
(d) 82347
Ans. (d)

51. If "PROMPT" is coded as QSPLOS ,then "PLAYER" should be
Ans. (a)

The questions 52-53 are based on the following data
6 people A,B,C,D,E and F sit around a table for dinner.Since A does not like C, he doesn't sit either opposite or beside C.B and F always like to sit opposite each other.
52. If A is beside F then who is are the two neighbours of B?
(a) D and C
(b) E and C
(c) D and E
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Ans. (c)

53. If D is adjacent to F then who is adjacent to C?
(a) E and B
(b) D and A
(c) D and B
(d) either (a) or (c)

54. Complete the sequence A, E ,I ,M ,Q ,U , _ , _
(a) B, F
(b) Y, C
(c) G, I
(d) K, O

55. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels
6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?
(a) 13km east
(b) 13km northeast
(c) 13km northwest
(d) 13km west
Ans. (c)

56. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times.
What is the probability that they tell the truth at the same time
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.14

57. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to
(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

58. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes
(a) Uplinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

59. The format specifier "-%d" is used for which purpose in C
(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c)Left justifying an intger
(d) Right justifying an intger

Ans. (c)
Wipro Sample Paper #2

1.When a bicycle is in motion, the force of friction exerted by the ground on the two wheels is such that it acts
(a) In the backward direction on the front wheel and in the forward direction on the rear wheel.
(b) In the forward direction on the front wheel and in the backward direction on the rear wheel.
(c) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.

(d) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.
Ans. (d)

2. A certain radioactive element A, has a half life = t seconds.
In (t/2) seconds the fraction of the initial quantity of the element so far decayed is nearly
(a) 29%
(b) 15%
(c) 10%
(d) 45%
Ans. (a)

3. Which of the following plots would be a straight line ?
(a) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of time
(b) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of number of decaying nuclei
(c) Decay rate against time
(d) Number of decaying nuclei against time
Ans. (b)

4. A radioactive element x has an atomic number of 100.
It decays directly into an element y which decays directly into element z.
In both processes a charged particle is emitted.
Which of the following statements would be true?
(a) y has an atomic number of 102
(b) y has an atomic number of 101
(c) z has an atomic number of 100
(d) z has an atomic number of 101
Ans. (b)

5. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals
then a/c, b/a, c/b are in
(a) AP
(b) GP
(c) HP
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

6. A man speaks the truth 3 out of 4 times.
He throws a die and reports it to be a 6.
What is the probability of it being a 6?
(a) 3/8
(b) 5/8
(c) 3/4
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

7. If cos2A + cos2B + cos2C = 1 then ABC is a
(a) Right angle triangle
(b) Equilateral triangle
(c) All the angles are acute
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

8. Image of point (3,8) in the line x + 3y = 7 is
(a) (-1,-4)
(b) (-1,4)
(c) (2,-4)
(d) (-2,-4)
Ans. (a)

9. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number
(b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

10. The maximum KE of the photoelectron emitted from a surface is dependent on
(a) The intensity of incident radiation
(b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface
Ans. (c)

11. Which of the following is not an essential condition for interference
(a) The two interfering waves must be propagated in almost the same direction or
the two interfering waves must intersect at a very small angle
(b) The waves must have the same time period and wavelength
(c) Amplitude of the two waves should be the same
(d) The interfering beams of light must originate from the same source
Ans. (c)

12. When X-Ray photons collide with electrons
(a) They slow down
(b) Their mass increases
(c) Their wave length increases
(d) Their energy decreases
Ans. (c)

13. An electron emits energy
(a) Because its in orbit
(b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits
Ans. (b)

14. How many bonds are present in CO2 molecule?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 4
Ans. (d)

15. In a balanced chemical equation
(a) Atoms are conserved
(b) Molecules are conserved
(c) Moles are conserved
(d) Reactant and product molecules are preserved
Ans. (a)

16. How many grams of NaOH will react with 0.2 equivalent of HCl?
(a) 0.59
(b) 0.285
(c) 1.18
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)

17. Which of the following is least acidic
(a) Ortho-cresol
(b) Para-cresol
(c) Phenol
(d) Meta-cresol
Ans. (b)

18. In Reimer-Tiemann's reaction, the reaction intermediate is
(a) Carbene
(b) Dichloro carbene
(c) Carbonion
(d) Carbonium ion
Ans. (b)

19. Which of the following is most acidic?
(a) C2H5OH
(c) Ethanol
(d) CH3OH
Ans. (b)

20.A catalyst
(a)always slows down the reaction
(b)always starts a rection that would not have ocurred at all otherwise
(c)causes changes in the rate of the reaction
(d)changes the quantities of the products formed
Ans. (c)

21.The rate of the first order reaction depends on the
(a) Concentration of the reactant
(b) Concentration of the product
(c) Time
(d) Temperature
Ans. (d)

22. The most abundant element in the universe is
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Helium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Silicon
Ans. (a)

23. Integrate 3x + 5 / (x3-x2-x+1)
(a) 1/2 log | (x+1)/(x-1) | - 4/(x-1)
(b) log |2+tanx|
(c) -(1+logx)/x
(d) 2 log|(tanx)/(tanx+2)
Ans. A

24. If y=cos-1(cosx + 4sinx)/(17)1/2, then dy/dx is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)

25. If the sum of n terms of two series of A.P are in the ratio 5n+4:9n+6 .find the ratio of their 13th terms
(a) 129/231
(b) 1/2
(c) 23/15
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

26. If the letters of the word "rachit" are arranged in all possible ways and these words are written
out as in a dictionary, what is the rank of the word "rachit".
(a) 485
(b) 480
(c) 478
(d) 481
Ans. (d)

27. Ravi's salary was reduced by 25%.Percentage increase to be effected to bring the salary
to the original level is
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 33 1/3%
(d) 30%
Ans. (c)

28. A and B can finish a piece of work in 20 days .B and C in 30 days and C and A in 40 days.
In how many days will A alone finish the job
(a) 48
(b) 34 2/7
(c) 44
(d) 45
Ans. (a)

29. How long will a train 100m long traveling at 72kmph take to overtake another train
200m long traveling at 54kmph
(a) 70sec
(b) 1min
(c) 1 min 15 sec
(d) 55 sec
Ans. (b)

30. What is the product of the irrational roots of the equation (2x-1)(2x-3)(2x-5)(2x-7)=9?
(a) 3/2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 3/4
Ans. (a)

31. Which of the following parameters is the same for molecules of all gases at a given temperature?
(a) Mass
(b) Momentum
(c) Speed
(d) Kinetic energy
Ans. (d)

32. A solid is completely immersed in liquid. The force exerted by the liquid on the solid will
(a) Increase if it is pushed deeper inside the liquid
(b) Change if its orientation is changed
(c) Decrease if it is taken partially out of the liquid
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

33. Select the correct statements
(a) A simple harmonic motion is necessarily periodic
(b) An oscillatory motion is necessarily periodic
(c) A periodic motion is necessarily oscillatory
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)

34. An electron is injected into a region of uniform magnetic flux density with the components
of velocity parallel to and normal to the flux. What is the path of the electron?
(a) Helix
(b) Parabola
(c) Circle
(d) Rectangle
Ans. (a)

35. A constant voltage is applied between the 2 ends of a uniform metallic wire.
Some heat is developed in it. The heat developed is doubled if
(a) both the length and radius of the wire are halved.
(b) both the length and radius of the wire are doubled
(c) the radius of the wire is doubled
(d) the length of the wire is doubled
Ans. (b)

36. If Young's double slit experiment is performed in water
(a) the fringe width will decrease
(b) the fringe width will increase
(c) the fringe width remains unchanged
(d) there will be no fringe
Ans. (a)

37. The shape of a spot of light produced when bright sunshine passes perpendicular
through a hole of very small size is
(a) Square, because the hole is a square
(b) Round, because it is an image of the sun
(c) Round with a small penumbra around it
(d) Square with a small penumbra
Ans. (b)
Select the alternative that logically follows from the two given statements.
 Some forms are books
 All books are made of paper
(a) Some forms are made of paper
(b) Some forms are not made of paper
(c) No forms are made of paper
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

 All toffees are chocolates
 Some toffees are not good for health
(a) Some chocolates are not good for health
(b) Some toffees are good for health
(c) No toffees are good for health
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (a)
The questions 40-46 are based on the following pattern.The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.The correct answer is
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement(II) alone is sufficient but statement(I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
(E) If statements (I) and (II) are identical.

43. If a ground is rectangular, what is its width?
(I) The ratio of its length to its breadth is 7:2
(II) Perimeter of the playground is 396 mts.
Ans. C

44. If the present age of my father is 39 yrs and my present age is x yrs, what is x?
(I) Next year my mother will be four times as old as i would be.
(II) My brother is 2 years older than I and my father is 4 years older than my mother.
Ans. C

45. How many brothers and sisters are there in the family of seven children?
(I) Each boy in the family has as many sisters as brothers
(II) Each of the girl in the family has twice as many brothers as sisters
Ans. D

46. x is not equal to 0, is x + y = 0?
(I) x is the reciprocal of y
(II) x is not equal to 1
Ans. A
Following questions are based on letter's analogy.First pair of letters should have the same relationship as the second pair of letters or vice versa.
47. ? : BGLQ : : YDIN : VAFK
(a) EKNS
(b) DKMT
(c) DLMS
(d) EJOT
Ans. (d)

48. NLO : RPS : : ? : ZXA
(a) VUW
(b) VTR
(c) VTW
(d) TRP
Ans. (c)

49. If "segment" is coded as rffndou, then "ritual" is coded as
(a) shutbm
(b) qjutbk
(c) qhutbk
(d) qhubtk
Ans. (c)

50. If "football" is "cricket" ,"cricket" is "basketball" ,"basketball" is "volleyball","volleyball" is "khokho" and "khokho" is cricket, which is not a ball game?
(a) cricket
(b) football
(c) khokho
(d) basketball
Ans. (a)

51. Which of the following is a recursive set of production
(a) S --> a|A, A --> S
(b) S --> a|A, A --> b
(c) S -->aA, A-->S
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

Wipro Sample Paper #3

Q1. Two bodies changed from p1v1 to p2v2 state in two ways. The heat supplied is delta Q and work done is delta W
Then what is constant in these two processes
(a) delta q
(b) delta w
(c) delta q + delta w
(d) delta q - delta w
Ans. (d)

Q2. _______ have same atomic number and same mass number are
(a) Isotopes
(b) Isotones
(c) Isomers
(d) Isobars
Ans. (c)

Q3. When a free electron is placed in a plane of electro magnetic then it moves in
(a) in the direction of the electric field
(b) in the direction of magnetic field
(c) of propagation of wave
(d) of the plane containing magnetic field and propagation direction.

Q4. Name the phenomena in which one proton is jumped from one isomer to another isomer to create two different elements

(a) functional isomerisim
(b) sterio merisim
(c) tauto merisim
(d) penta merisim

Ans. (c)
Q5. In the below compounds which one has 40% C ,6.7% H and 53.3 % O what is its empherical formula
(a) CHO
(b) CH2
(c) C2H2O2
(d) C2H3O2
Ans: (b)

Q6. X rays are coming from X ray tube, the wavelength is _______ a certain wavelength/s

(a) below
(b) above
(c) inbetween
(d) out of

Ans. (c)

Q7. In a triode valve in order to increase the saturation current what has to be done
(a) increase plate voltage
(b) reduce distance between grid and plate
(c) increase cathode potential
(d) reduce grid potential

Ans. (d )

Q8. Seven different toys are distributed among 3 children how many different ways are possible?
(a) 7C3
(b) 7P3
(c) 3 7
(d) 7 3

Ans. (c)

Q9. A, B ans C are three speakers. They have to speak randomly along with another 5 speakers in a function.
A has to speak before B and B has to speak before C. What is the probability.

Ans. 1/6

Q10. If dy = (secx + ytanx)dx, Then the curve is

(a) x = ycosx
(b) x = ysinx
(c) x = ytanx
(d) x = ysecx

Ans. (a)
Q11. Two series are 16,21,26.... and 17,21,25.....
What is the sum of first hundred common numbers
(a) 101100
(b) 110100
(c) 101110
(d) 110101
Ans. (a)

Q12. There are two sections in a question paper each contain five questions. A students has to answer 6 questions.
Maximum no. of questions that can be answered from any section is 4. How many ways he can attempt the paper?

(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 120
(d) 200
Ans. (d)
Q13. a and b are two numbers selected randomly from 1,2,3.... 25 what is the probability of a and b are not equal.
(a) 1/25
(b) 24/25
(c) 13/25
(d) 2/25
Ans. (b)

Q14. The sum of the series 1 + 1(1+1/n) + 3(1+1/n)2 + ..... is equal to?
Ans. n2
Q15. Two circles of different radii intersects each other what is the maximum no of intersections
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Ans. (c)

Q16. If x= sin-1(t), y = log(1-t2), find d2y/dx2 when t=1/2
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -8/3
(d) -2/3
Ans. (c)

Q17. If x approaches infinity , then ex dx )/( e2xdx) is ?
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) 2
Ans. (a)

Q18. If f(x)=1-cos(1-cosx)/x4 is continuos at f(0) then what is x
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 1/4
(d) -1/4
Ans. (c)

Q19. For the word SURITI, if you arrange the letters in dictionary order then what is its rank?
(a) 234
(b) 235
(c) 236
(d) 237
Ans. (c)

Q20. Period of sin ((2t + 3) / 6 pi)
(a) 6pi
(b) 6pi2
(c) 3pi
Ans. (b)

Q21 - Q23. Four questions given on the below data

X,Yand Z are senior engineers. A,B,C,D are junior engineers. Company wants to select 4 enginers. Two will be senior and two will be juniors. The company wants these engineers to work in the most productive way so they respect each person's likes/dislikes.
 Y is not friends with A
 Z is not friends with C
 B is not friends with A
1. If B is selected then who will be the remaining 4 members ?
2. If C is selected, Z and ___ cannot be selected?
3. D is always selected if ___ is selected?

Q24. A speaks truth 70% of the times, B speaks truth 80% of the times.
What is the probability that both are contradicting each other is ?

Q25. ((2x-3)/((x2 +x+1)2 )dx is ?

Q26. Ram starts from A walking 2 km North and turns right and walks 4 km and turns right again and walks 4 km and turns right again and walks 4 km and meets Radha at Bwalking in the opposite direction to Ram .
a) Which direction does Ram walk after the first turn?
b) Distance between A and B

Q27. If the equation x2 - 3x + a = 0 has the roots (0,1) then value of a is ?

Q28. A and B's temperature are 10c and 20 having same surface , then their ratio of rate of emmisions is ?

Q29. An atomic particle exists and has a particlular decay rate . It is in a train . When the train moves, a person observes for whether the decay rate
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) depend on the directions of movement of train

Q30. Which of the following exchanges positive ions
(b) nh2-
(c) ch2
Ans. (b)

Q31. After execution of CMP, a instruction in Intel 8085 microprocessor
(a) ZF is set and CY is reset.
(b) ZF is set CY is unchanged
(c) ZF is reset, CY is set
(d) ZF is reset , CY is unchanged .

Ans. ZF is set and CY is reset

Q32. The best tool for editing a graphic image is ?

Q33. Network scheme defines
a.)one to one
b.) many to many
c.) one to ,many ?

Q34. A person wants to measures the length of a rod.First he measures with standing ideally then he maeasures by
moving parrel to the rod
(a)the length will decrease in second case
(b)length will be same
(c) length will increse in the second case.

Q35. One U-230 nucleus is placed in a train moving by velocity emiting alpha rays .When the train is at rest the
distance between nucleus and alpha particle is x . One passenger is observing the particle . When the train is moving
what is the distance between particle and nucleus ?
(a) x
(b) x + vt
(c) x - vt

Q36. What is the resulting solution when benzene and toluene are mixed ?

Q37. If the word FADENCOMT equals 345687921 then
1. What is FEAT
2. Find representation of 2998

Q38. Given 10 alphabets out of which 5 are to be chosen. How many words can be made with atleast one repetition.

Q39. Arrange by acidic values : phenol, nitrotolouene and o-cresol?

Q40. Find sum of 3 + 5/(1+22) + 7/(1 + 22 + 32) + ......
Ans. 3n/(1 + n)

The following are few sample questions that maybe asked in the software paper.We haven't been able to give the values in certain problems ; only the type of questions have been mentioned.
Q What sorting algos have their best and worst case times equal ?
Ans. O(nlogn) for mergesort and heap sort
Q. What page replacement algo . has minimumn number of page faults ?
Ans. Optimality algorithm
Q. What is the use of virtual base class in c++
Ans. Multiple lines between derived classes.
Q. Find the eccentricity of a given node in a directed graph
Q. Convert the infix to postfix for A-(B+C)*(D/E)
Ans. ABC+DE/*-
Q. What is swapping
Q. Assignment operator targets to
Ans. l-value
Q. A byte addressable computer has memory capacity of 2 power m Kbytes and can perform 2 power n operations
an instruction involving three operands and one operator needs maximum of ---bits
Ans. 3m + n
Q. In round robin scheduling, if time quatum is too large then it degenerates to
Q. What is network schema?
Q. Packet Burst is ______
Q. Picard's method uses _______?
Ans. Successive Differentiation.

The following are few sample questions that maybe asked in the hardware paper. We haven't been able to give the values in certain problems ; only the type of questions have been mentioned.

Q. Concentration and restivity is given and conductivity is asked for ?

Q. R , resistance and C, capacitance is given ,find the frequency and Q factor of the crystal ?

Q. Critical frequency and angle theta is given ;.the max useable frequency is to be calculated

Q. Questions on parabolic reflector antenna's and half wave dipole antenna's design

Q. Ramp signal is generated from integrator .Whether it is a low or high pass filter .?

Q. Calculate FM bandwidth given max modulation frequency FM , max freq deviation , f and 8 pairs allowable side band component ?


Anonymous said...

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